At UnHerd David A. Bell considers a very interesting question: does conquest convey a right to territory? His opening raised some red flags for me:
The two expulsions took place only a few years apart. In the first, starting in 1945, the Soviet Union took the lead in driving as many as 12 million ethnic Germans from territories that had previously belonged to Germany. They largely ended up in what became West Germany, their places taken principally by Czechs and Poles. In the second expulsion, in 1948-49, the newborn state of Israel drove hundreds of thousands of Palestinian Arabs from their homes, while hundreds of thousands of others fled what had become a war zone. All in all, well over 700,000 were forcibly displaced.
The problem is that during the period he’s addressing there were actually three expulsions: the expulsion of ethnic Germans from territories conquered by the Soviet Union at the end of World War II, the expulsion of Palestinian Arabs from the newly-created land of Israel, and, the expulsion he fails to mention, the expulsion of roughly 900,000 Jews from Muslim lands of North Africa and the Middle East. Omitting that expulsion elides over something pretty basic.
Without digressing too much, I suspect that there aren’t 1,000 people alive today who are living where their ancestors have lived for the last 1,000 generations. Everybody is from somewhere else. They are where they are now because their ancestors took the land from somebody else whose ancestors took the land from somebody else, whose etc. It may be distasteful but if there is no legitimate claim of ownership via conquest then no country has any legitimacy or, more precisely, the only way to claim any legitimacy is by drawing some arbitrary line in history labelled “This Far and No Farther”. Somehow such lines have a tremendous tendency to be self-serving in one way or another.
There is another way of looking things which goes back to a Scottish saying: possession is nine-tenths of the law.







